Seems to me the real point is: given that crime occurs equally among whites and minorities (according to the Times article I read), but minorities are incarcerated at a much higher rate, does that make our judicial system racist?
And if so, does that mean a certain group of voters (minority felons) are disinfranchised?
Even assuming more whites who commit felonies are not convicted, given the assumption of a fair trial, the minorities who are convicted of a felony did commit the felony. On the other hand, the end result is a higher percentage of minorities, when compared to whites in a similiar class, who can't vote.
Interesting issue.