I understand all of that. Let me try to explain what I have never understood about his civil trial. If he was acquitted in a criminal trial, which require that you be found guilty beyond a reasonable doubt, then was tried in a civil trial, which have lower standards. How come he lost? Did OJ’s attorneys not bring up the fact that he was just acquitted for these murders in a court that hold a higher standard? Would that fact not be his best defense?
No, it would not. The fact that the court he was in (Civil) held a lower standard for determining guilt would be the doorway through which the persuer would walk through. In other words, the persuer in civil court does not need to come up with as much proof against the defendant (O.J.) as they need to come up with in criminal court. So being dismissed in criminal court does not mean that that case will be easier to dismiss in civil court.